Herbert Armstrong and his associates have always downplayed and/or ignored the fact that the Torah makes plain that the annual festivals were given to the children of Israel (Leviticus 23:1). Nevertheless, the Gospel of John makes clear that the author regarded the festivals as Jewish artifacts.
We read there: "The Passover of the Jews was at hand, and Jesus went up to Jerusalem." (John 2:13, ESV) Notice that it is described as "the Passover of the Jews, and that "Jesus went to Jerusalem" to observe it. This plainly contradicts the Armstrongist assertion that God intended for everyone everywhere to observe this festival.
Likewise, in the fifth chapter of the same Gospel, we read: "After this there was a feast of the Jews, and Jesus went up to Jerusalem." (5:1) In this case, the festival is not even identified. We are merely informed that "there was a feast of the Jews." And, once again, Jesus "went up to Jerusalem" to observe it.
Also, in the sixth chapter, we read: "Now the Passover, the feast of the Jews, was at hand." (6:4) And, in the next chapter, we read: "Now the Jews' Feast of Booths was at hand." (7:2) In the eleventh chapter, we read: " Now the Passover of the Jews was at hand, and many went up from the country to Jerusalem before the Passover to purify themselves." (11:55) Moreover, in the tenth chapter, we find Jesus observing the Feast of the Dedication (10:22). Hence, obviously, it does NOT follow that simply because Christ observed a Jewish festival that his Gentile disciples would be obligated to do the same!
That’s not fair. You’re only supposed to look at passages that say “the feasts of the Lord."
ReplyDeleteBullinger, in his Companion Bible notes at John 1:19, says, "the term 'the Jews' is a characteristic expression in the Gospel of John pointing to the consequences of their rejection of Messiah, when they would be Lo Ammo (not my people): no longer regarded as 'Israel', but as 'Jews', the name given them by Gentiles".
ReplyDeleteAt John 2:19, he writes concerning the Jews Passover that " after the revival under Ezra and Nehemiah, corruption proceeded apace and the Lord found the nation as described in Malachi (see 1:7-10) . Hence, what was once 'the feasts of Jehovah'' are spoken of as what they had then become, the 'feasts of the Jews' ".
I think your previous post, How Israel made God hate His Sabbath and Festivals, demonstrates this point! It's interesting there you call them " His Festivals " but here, "Jewish artifacts"!
Obligatory or not, can Gentle Christians celebrate God's festivals? According to 1 Corinthians 5:7-8, the answer is yes! Will they one day be obligatory for non-converted Gentiles nations? Only if they want rain, Zechariah 14.
Yes, as COG Catholic and BP8 have pointed out, we look at both (Feasts of the Lord and Feasts of the Jews) Scriptural references on this blog. And, yes, both of the points that Bullinger made are valid (the Gentile audience and what the Jews had done to those festivals throughout the history of the Old Covenant). As I have also pointed out, the festivals pointed to Jesus Christ and his work (I would include Purim and Dedication/Lights/Hanukkah), and that he fulfilled them. Hence, while I believe that there is nothing wrong with Christians trying to observe them, we must acknowledge that such observance is necessarily going to fall short of what is demanded in Torah and is NOT obligatory for New Covenant Christians.
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