Same-sex Marriage?

Now that we have made a comprehensive study of what Scripture actually has to say about the institution of marriage, we are ready to tackle the highly controversial and emotionally charged issue of same-sex marriage. Indeed, a foray into this topic would not be possible without a solid grounding in what Scripture reveals about that institution more generally speaking. Unfortunately, even with this background, the prejudices that many folks bring to this topic will prevent some from even entertaining the possibility! For them, homosexuality is a sin - case closed before the discussion is even started!

Hence, although this post is meant to deal with the issue of same-sex marriage, I feel like we must not ignore the elephant in the room - the morality/sinfulness of homosexuality. In this connection, before proceeding with the main topic of this post, I would like to encourage my readers to do a little homework of their own on this topic. First, I would like to recommend to my readers the article "Understanding sexual orientation and homosexuality" by the American Psychological Association. Also, from the Online Etymology Dictionary, I think that it is critical for us to understand the origins of the words "sodomite" and "homosexual." In terms of the inappropriateness of "traditional" Christian views of what Scripture has to say on this topic, I am happy to recommend two brief articles to my readers: "Original Greek Definition of Arsenokoitai" and "The Clobber Passages: Reexamined" by Bruce L. Gerig.

Finally, in the light of what we have said about how women were treated in patriarchal Israel, I would also like to encourage my readers to consider the following language from those two famous passages from the Torah (Leviticus 18:22 and 20:13). In both of those passages, the phrases "as with womankind" and "as he lieth with a woman" are employed. Could these passages be suggesting that a man should not be subjected to the same kind of humiliation/subjugation that women often experienced within the context of sexual intercourse in those days?

While I think we can all agree that things like gang rape, male shrine prostitution and pederasty are immoral behaviors, I hope that we can also acknowledge that the actual language employed in both the Old and New Testaments does NOT constitute a condemnation of loving and consensual relationships between two people of the same sex. If we can admit that homosexuals are also people made in the image and likeness of God, we should be able to acknowledge that they should be subjected to the same moral standards which apply to the rest of humankind!

If God assessed the human body, its functions and sexual attraction as being VERY GOOD, how can we make them shameful and sinful? If it isn't good for a man to be alone, how can we make it acceptable for a homosexual to be alone? If marriage was intended to be held in high esteem by ALL - as an honorable estate for ALL, then how can we make it dishonorable or improper for some? Although the first marriage was between one man and one woman, how do we get around the fact that polygamy and divorce were tolerated in Old Testament times? Does that suggest that there might be other exceptions to the original intent which might be tolerated by God? And, if a person is attracted to someone who shares his/her gender, would it be appropriate to force that person to go against his/her own nature and marry someone who he/she wasn't attracted to?

More importantly, can the same moral principles be applied to homosexuals which have been applied to heterosexuals? Are two people of the same gender capable of nurturing and caring for children and raising them in the fear and admonition of the Lord? Are two people of the same gender capable of providing companionship and comfort to each other? Are two people of the same gender capable of loving each other and being faithful to each other? Are homosexuals capable of expressing love through sexual intercourse? And, if we answer "yes" to those questions, how can we justify excluding homosexuals from the moral and psychological benefits of marriage?

Think about that basic definition of marriage that we find in the book of Genesis. Remember? "Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh." (Genesis 2:24) Are homosexuals capable of leaving their parents, cleaving to their partner, and having sexual intercourse with him/her (becoming one flesh)? And, if they are, doesn't that mean that they are married in the eyes of God? And, if we say NO, aren't we effectively mandating an immoral life for them and excluding them from the moral laws which bind the rest of us? What do you think?